Re: [linuxiran] quick question

[Arash Zeini]

Hi Arash,

I have partly followed the other discussions. My understanding was and is 
that there is no official statement in this regard, but that the family 
Aryanpour does not mind derivative work based on the original dictionary.

But I am not sure, rely on this on your own risk. Behdad Esfahbod may know 
more in this regard.

Greetings,
Arash

In a message dated Tuesday 07 September 2004 14:49, Arash Partow wrote:

> Hi all,
>
> whats the current state with the "supposedly" leaked aryanpour
> dictionary? Does anyone have any info on this issue? Some people
> from other lists have been debating this issue for some time now.
>
> I plan to write a small app which will reverse the index to make a
> persian to english mapping possible, would this new index be seen
> as a derivative of the dictionary if it is found that the original
> source is Aryanpour?
>
>
> on more of a technical side, I'm still not 100% sure if my methodology
> is correct, in any case I plan to reverse the index using the
> following fact:
>
> if there is a mapping from english to persian like so:
>
> abc :: xyz, ijk
>
> then the reverse mapping from persian to english would be so:
>
> xyz :: abc
> ijk :: abc
>
> a more extended example would be:
>
> abc :: xyz, ijk
> def :: qrs, ijk
>
> then the reverse mapping would be:
>
> xyz:: abc
> ijk:: abc, def
> qrs:: def
>
>
> Is this logic correct from a linguistic point of view? if not,
> could someone give me some examples of where it falls over etc...
>
> Any help would be very much appreciated.
>
>
>
> Arash Partow
>
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