RE: 0^0 = ?

[Mike Miller]

On Fri, 14 Nov 2003, Randy Gober wrote:

> Yes, but lim(x->0) log(x) does not exist, however The lim(x->0+)=-inf

and lim(x->0+) x*log(a_1*x) = 0, right?

Mike


> -----Original Message-----
> From: Mike Miller [mailto:address@hidden
> Sent: Friday, November 14, 2003 9:06 PM
> To: Randy Gober
> Cc: address@hidden
> Subject: RE: 0^0 = ?
>
>
> On Fri, 14 Nov 2003, Randy Gober wrote:
>
> > Goldberg's proof is flawed. He writes that f(x)^g(x)=
> > e^[g(x)log{f(x)}], but
> > f(x) = 0, => log(f(x)) = -inf
> > So g(x)log(f(x)) is a 0*inf form, which itself is indeterment.
> >
> > (similar problem with the limit at the end: lim(x->0) x*log(a_1*x) )



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