Re: Should mode commands be idempotent?

[John Wiegley]

>>>>> Drew Adams <address@hidden> writes:

>> FWIW, I can't off the top of my head think of a reason why (foo-mode 1)
>> followed by (foo-mode 1) should do something different than just calling it
>> once.

> Just what do you have in mind, for the meaning here of "do something
> different"? Are we saying that the state of the Emacs session after the
> second call should be identical to the state after the first call? Just what
> kind of "identical" would be meant?

Yes, idempotence: calling it N times is the exact same as calling it once.

-- 
John Wiegley                  GPG fingerprint = 4710 CF98 AF9B 327B B80F
http://newartisans.com                          60E1 46C4 BD1A 7AC1 4BA2