Re: var(1) = 0 ??

[Muhali]

var(1) = 0 is at least in conflict with the standard definition of the
unbiased estimate, where the sum of squared deviations is scaled by n-1 (n
sample size).

But common sense has it that a sample of size 1 simply has *no* variance, so 
the result is basically a convention; it just hurts my math feelings to see
var(1) = 0.

M.


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